Hello, I was hoping you can put my overthinking mind at ease. I responded to a traumatic vsa. Single stab wound to the chest with the knife still impaled. Single stab wound to the lower left side of his chest(left of his nipple). He was asystole, very rigored at the jaw but no other obvious signs of “ Obivously Dead Criteria” My question is technically can we deem that enough to not continue resuscitative efforts? Or do they need gross rigor mortis at the extremities or lividity to call it? We decided to run the call as we did not feel comfortable calling it with just rigor at the jaw. Removed the knife as it was impending CPR, applied an asherman seal, rhythm analysis revealing asystole, double NPA with two handed seal and adequate ventilations with equal chest rise and fall with good air entry(did not needle decompress), end tidal of 20-22, IO access and transported. Arrival at the ER, got odd looks from ER team and got questioned why we transported someone who was rigored at the jaw and explained to them that we did not have enough to pronounce them on scene. Hoping you can give some clarification on this challenging scenario and whether I could’ve done that call differently. Thank you!
When giving Epinephrine for anaphylaxis is it expectable to delay administration of diphenhydramine following the first dose of Epinephrine if it is getting close to the 5 minute dose interval for the second dose of Epinephrine and the patient is requiring the second dose of Epinephrine? My understanding is that Epinephrine in anaphylaxis is the priority medication and I could use clarification as to whether or not it is okay to delay administration of diphenhydramine until after the second dose of Epinephrine if the patient requires a second dose and we were not able to administer diphenhydramine in between the required 5 minute dose interval for the second dose of Epinephrine.
I was hoping to get some clarification as to what a penetrating trauma under FTT guidelines is considered to be? I’ve seen many definitions that will define it as a breaking of the skin resulting in an open wound but wouldn’t a laceration fall under that definition? For example you attend a patient that has fallen resulting in a deep laceration to their head. Would that injury be considered penetrating and thus fall under FTT guidelines?





