From my understanding, the narcan in suboxone is in there in order to abstain individuals from using the drug incorrectly, ie. Crushing and inhaling or injecting, but administered correctly, the narcan gets eliminated via the liver. My question is how does inhaling and sublingual administration differ in terms of first pass? I always thought sublingual administration circumvented the first pass effect. I understand the protocol states oral administration and may not be sublingual but I am just curious about the mechanism of action since suboxone is often administered sublingually. Thank you