This is a very unlikely scenario, but I wondered if Toradol could replace Ibuprophen for the patient experiencing pain. In the unlikely event that a patient is able to take Tylenol and once administered pt refuses Ibuprophen due to nausea (post tylenol administration) could Toradol be used? It would be rare as the contraindications are the same for both nsaids aside from nausea and unable to tolerate oral med administration for Ibuprophen. Could pt preference come into play, a patient in severe pain states “I have had toradol in the past and it works really well for me” assuming all other conditions are met could they receive toradol in addition to tylenol to compliment the nsaid?

In regards to medications with a condition of “unaltered”, should we be administering these if the pt is GCS 15, then has a syncopal episode (or other altered period) in your care and then returns to GCS 15? An example would be a chest pain call where you want to treat with ASA and Ondansetron. Is it a case of “once you’re out you’re out” or would it still be appropriate to treat as they have now returned to an unaltered state? Thanks

Hi Doc(s), Two unrelated questions I’ve been pondering over the last couple of days: 1. In the field I’ve noticed some paramedics withhold dimenhydrinate administration if the patient has already taken any Gravol in the last 4-6 hours. However, the medical directive does not specify a time and simply states overdose on antihistamines or anticholinergics or tricyclic antidepressants. My understanding of their logic is that additional Gravol may cause an overdose in the patient however Gravol brand themselves recommend a dose of 1-2 50mg capsules every 4hrs PRN… Could you please provide some further clarification on this practice, and if we should still be administering it if we do not suspect an overdose but that the medication has been taken appropriately. (and similar practice for if the patient is taking tricyclics or anticholinergics as prescribed to them) 2. I recently had a COPD exacerbation patient who I believe would have benefitted greatly from CPAP. He had equal lung sounds through all fields with no paroxysmal chest movement, however there was a recent history of a collapsed lung approx. 6 weeks prior. (Unknown cause, from his history I suspect possibly a bleb/bullae) The current extenuating circumstance of COVID-19 aside, should CPAP be considered in this patient? Although I am not suspecting a current pneumothorax, due to the recent history I would think that weakening of the lung tissues could put the patient at greater risk for a recurrent event if subjected to significant positive pressures. Thank you and stay safe!

Under the nausea/vomiting directive contraindications include overdose on antihistamines/anticholinergics/tricyclic antidepressants – my understanding is that if a patient has already taken (gravol) then giving another (Ex. 50mg) dose would potentially cause an overdose thus we would withhold gravol in that case. Being that tricyclics are rarely prescribed these days, I have yet to come across this drug interaction in the field. My question is: does any use of tricyclic antidepressants preclude the administration of dimenhydrinate? Or should we only withhold it if the pt. Presents with a tricyclic overdose toxidrome?

Question: In the setting of an adult who has extremity trauma with severe pain and has vomited along with nausea, could this patient receive dimenhydrinate with ketorolac?

Question: Regarding Benadryl, in the auxiliary protocol it states that you cannot give Benadryl if the patient has taken a sedative or antihistamine in past 4 hours. This is not, however, indicated in the normal standing order protocol for Benadryl.

I am wondering if this is applicable as well if you arrive on scene with a patient who has taken Benadryl oral prior to your arrival. Do they still meet the protocol to give Benadryl even if they have already taken it? Should I still give it or withhold since they might have an overdose of Benadryl or have both the doses reacting at the same time? Would this also apply to a patient who has taken Gravol prior to EMS arrival as well?

Hope this can be clarified. I feel it’s a grey area that most of us don’t think about until put in the situation. Thanks.

Question: In a patient with an allergic reaction or anaphylaxis, who is experiencing nausea or vomiting, is it okay to treat them with Gravol after I have administered Benadryl?