Question: In Ask MAC it states : “As for Ketorolac, daily ASA is not considered anticoagulation therapy as it affect platelet function and does not result in a true anticoagulated state.” So PLAVIX (clopidogrel) is also affect platelet function, even though ASA affects the cyclooxygenase 1 (COX-1) pathway, and PLAVIX affect the adenosine diphosphate (ADP) pathway, still I think both PLAVIX and ASA affect platelet function . And I think daily dose of PLAVIX also not a true anti-coagulated state and Ketorolac is not contra-indicated. Please let me know if I am right or wrong by those explanations.
Question: At our recent recertification, I posed a question that was answered by a doctor. This was regarding the ability to call a cardiologist if we had a patient with a STEMI who did not have chest pain. Her answer was: not at this time. However, in conversation with medics from other classes, this seems to contradict what they have been told. Can you please clarify?
br>Also, are we to continue to understand that once a patient is out of the STEMI protocol (e.g. with vitals) that they continue to be so even if the vitals improve to within proper range?Question: Upon review of the new Field Trauma Triage Guidelines, colleagues and I noticed that those patients who have sustained penetrating trauma to the head/neck or torso (with or without vital signs) should be transported to the lead trauma hospital providing it’s within 30 minutes transport. Our question is why is this not the case for blunt trauma patients (in particular, those patients VSA from blunt trauma)?
Question: An ACP is doing an inter-facility transfer of a 16 year old patient with a fracture. During the journey the patient’s pain becomes severe in nature. The sending facility had been administering 1mg doses of Morphine with good effect however the medical directives would indicate that the paramedic should administer a 3mg dose of Morphine.
Can the paramedic elect to give a lower (1mg) dose since it has been already proven to be “the right dose” for this patient, or does this require consultation with a BHPQuestion: We have been trained on the Opioid Toxicity Medical Directive and the educators reiterated to use it as a last resort because of the potential for violence. I understand their concerns. I also appreciate these kits are out in the public for use and our skill set should continue to exceed that of the layperson(s). However, I wonder why not consider expanding the king LT insertion medical directive to include GCS = 3 for PCPs? This would allow safe and effective airway management of suspected overdose patients (or other GCS = 3 patients), even in situations of long transport times. We already preform this task in situations where a ROSC is obtained. We are familiar and proficient with the equipment and there is no additional cost to the services.
Question: I had a question about the ACP Pain Management Medical Directive. I can give 4 doses of 5mg max of morphine (a total of 20mg). If I give a loading dose of let’s say 4mg to achieve the desired effect then I could give maintenance doses of 2mg every 5 min to keep the patient’s pain controlled. So instead of giving 20mg over 15 min I could give it over 40 min. This way I am giving a smaller dose, hopefully meaning I have less side effects (nausea, vasodilation) and if I have a longer transport time can better manage my patient’s pain for longer. I understand that Base Hospitals are very strict about giving only 4 doses. Thank you. PS: I think this is a great tool!
Question: If a pediatric patient is significantly larger than expected (for example, a 6 year old female who weighs 120lbs), do we still use the pediatric dosing chart OR calculation OR adult settings? Personally, if I’d done this call today, I probably would have chosen to use the pediatric calculations of 2J/kg then 4J/kg etc.
i.e.: If using peds dosing chart, this 6 year old would only get a shock of 50J 100J 100J 100J
i.e.: If using peds calculation, she would receive 110J 220J 220J 220J
i.e.: If using adult settings, she would receive 200J 300J 360J 360JQuestion: If you have a ROSC and the patient re-arrests and is now in a shockable rhythm do you shock at the next highest setting or do you revert back to 200 joules?
For example, if one shock delivered on scene for an adult at 200J, then ROSC, then rearrest – next shock (as I suggest) would be 300J. Question: Under the Adult Analgesia Medical Directive, it indicates that for Mild-Moderate Pain, Acetaminophen and Ibuprofen should be considered. If the pain is mild-severe pain than ketorolac should be considered. If a patient is reporting severe pain as a result of isolated hip or extremity trauma, and the MOI is consistent with severe pain, does this mean that only ketorolac should be considered, regardless of the patients ability to tolerate oral medications?
The way that I read this is that Acetaminophen and Ibuprofen would not be indicated if the pain is severe.Question: Would it be a waste of a paramedics time to deliver Salbutamol through a BVM to an unconscious patient while setting up for Epi in the case of an Asthma or anaphylaxis? Would the OPA if used, not block the mist and prevent inhalation? To me, Epi administration (scenario dependent) would be the priority. Thanks
Question: In the situation of being an ACP making a rendezvous with a PCP crew to assist on a medical cardiac arrest patient that they already initiated transport with and did not arrest on route, would you suggest once we make patient contact to administer 3 EPI q4/lidocaine or amio/saline bolus (depending on rhythms), BHP patch and then continue transport or continue transport and administer epi q4 until transfer of core or ROSC? There seems to be different opinions about this in my service. I appreciate you taking the time to answer.
Question: How can we deal with doctors at clinics that abuse the EMS system? We frequently go to these clinics, lights and sirens, only to arrive with a non-emergency call. More often than not, the patient states “the doctor called you guys, because she said I will get in quicker than driving in by car.” It gets very aggravating when the general public abuse the medical system, but when a medical doctor does it, that is way worse.
Question: My question is in regards to abdominal pain and analgesia. I was always under the understanding that as ACP’s we should not be patching to a BHP for analgesia when a patient is experiencing severe abdominal pain. I have come into discussion with other ACP’s where some have and some have not patched for analgesia in severe abdominal pain. I am a bit confused about this particular situation. Should I be patching a BHP for analgesia orders for a patient experiencing severe abdominal pain?
Question: I would like to know the actual medical directive and/or guidelines regarding PCP’s transporting trach patients with no nurse, doctor or RT escort.
Additionally, what the medical directive is if staff is sending the patient to the ER without their vent, therefore, the paramedic is required to bag the patient via BVM for the duration of transport and until there is transfer of care at the ER?
Is this in the BLS scope of practice?Question: In the Symptomatic Bradycardia Medical Directive, both atropine administration and TCP have hypothermia listed in the contraindications. However, this contraindication is not present for dopamine administration.
This seems to contradict the practice of not giving drugs to the severely hypothermic patient and focusing prehospital care on rapid transport and passive rewarming. Was this omission voluntary and if so, what is the rationale or the studies that support the use of dopamine in such a case? Thank you!
PS: Hypothermia is not listed as a contraindication for dopamine in the ROSC protocol either.Question: A patient is presenting with pulmonary edema. Patient became more symptomatic before calling and dyspnea worsened. Upon gathering history and taking vitals, they meet the criteria for Nitro and CPAP. The patient is currently prescribed Lasix for fluid in the lungs from doctor visit one week ago.
With the history of pulmonary edema and being prescribed Lasix for fluid in the lungs, would this now be considered Non-Acute Pulmonary Edema?
I need a better understanding of Acute Pulmonary Edema vs. Non-Acute Pulmonary Edema. The CPAP protocol indication lists: Suspected Acute Pulmonary Edema.
Since the pulmonary edema is non-acute would CPAP and Nitro be withheld? Or, since the symptoms have worsened, provided I can recognize a patient that is truly in need of CPAP and Nitro, would I administer them? I want to clarify – thanks.Question: Is it advised that when a patient is not adequately perfusing but still technically with a pulse, that CPR be commenced? In discussing this with my colleagues, we are speaking in regards to a patient who may technically still have an idioventricular or agonal pulse and is circling the drain. Instead of waiting the 30 sec-1 min for the patient to be completely VSA, would it not be better to get on the chest and begin compressions in an attempt at increasing perfusion?
Question: Recently on a call, a patient presented with the following: sudden onset of fever (approx. 1 hour prior to EMS arrival as per those on scene) @ 38.2°, angio-edema (specifically, swollen tongue only), difficulty breathing (6-7 word dyspnea) and tremors.
Upon arrival, patient was tachycardic, presented with stridor and a plural rub upon auscultation, mild hypertension and room air saturation of 87% (patient had removed home oxygen prior to EMS arrival).
Patient had a history of CHF, COPD, IDDM, MI and several others, but no history of the same and no known allergies. Patient also had been sitting on their couch all day prior to sudden onset with no precipitating event and no known causative agent (including any recent changes to their medications or the dosing levels).
On route, patient became confused, pale, diaphoretic and extremely combative (preventing any other attempts to assist).
Upon arrival, the receiving physician inquired as to what interventions, if any, were administered beyond oxygen administration and supportive care. Based on the incident history, the patient did not appear to fit with any of the directives, as there was no indication of a potential exposure.
My question is whether it would be a stretch to reason that a potential change (perhaps unknown to the patient) to the medication could have caused the reaction as a “probable allergen” and administer epinephrine as per the “Moderate to Severe Allergic Reaction” directive, or whether it is simply a matter of providing high flow oxygen and rapid transport.
It seemed unclear if this particular case was an adverse reaction to the ACE inhibitor the patient had been taking for some time, some sort of infection or an unknown allergen (deemed unlikely from sitting in a controlled home environment).Question: My question is in regards to the Cardiac Ischemia protocol. I am currently a PCP student and we had a chest pain call. The patient was complaining of chest discomfort and described it as a pressure starting sub-sternal and going to patients left shoulder. The patient was also experiencing SOB. This pain was a 6/10 when it first came on and went down to a 5/10 with relaxation. The patient did not have a history of angina but had received NTG in the hospital a couple years before and did not know the why. The patient did not have NTG on their own list of meds. We gave 2 81mg ASA and did a 12-lead which was negative for a right ventricular infarct. My preceptor did establish an IV and got a line started set at TKVO before we gave the NTG.
The question is even though the patient did not have NTG on their own med list at the time of the call; does the time the patient was in hospital and was given NTG count as prior history for the Cardiac Ischemia protocol?
I did see a related question on the site but it was related to a doctor giving the NTG before EMS arrival and it was stated that it should be prescribed. So does that mean it has to be a current prescription or can a patient have it in the hospital and it count? I know it does not matter after you get an IV establish but if we weren’t able to get an IV established then would we have been able to give it?Question: Although not employed by a service under the SWORBHP, I have been closely following this site and your LINKS newsletter. Thank you for both of these invaluable resources. After reading the most recent question regarding spinal immobilization, I had to share a resource with you that can located here https://m.youtube.com/watch?v=eM4hxuooNN0. This is a lecture by Dr. Ryan Jacobson, a former paramedic who is now medical director of Johnson County EMS in Kansas and Assistant Professor of Emergency Medicine at University of Missouri-Kansas City School of Medicine. If you have already seen it, you are familiar with its informative value. If not, I’m confident that you will find it of value. This link is unplublished and cannot be found via YouTube search.
Something that I have been wondering after viewing the lecture and statistical evidence is as follows. Hypothetically, if the current practice of securing patients to backboards increases morbidity and mortality (particularly penetrating trauma) and that there is greater spinal movement than if secured directly to the stretcher, and that no negative effects have been observed by not securing to a backboard, is it reasonable to consider foregoing the backboard as care superior to the minimum requirement as written in the BLS? Similarly to a “letter of the law” vs. “spirit of the law” question. LBBs have been contraindicated for transport in Queensland, Australia for the past five years among numerous other jurisdictions. I’ve inquired with my employer but was given the old “We have standards” response.
Thank you for your time and consideration on this topic. I look forward to your reply.Question: I have heard the term “best practice” used quite often in the past little while. I was wondering if you could elaborate on the means of “best practice”, and if the SWORBHP guidelines can be considered “best practice”?
If not, where would one look to ensure they are using the “best practice”? For example, in recent studies, best practice may not be to administer oxygen to each and every patient, however the BLS states that we should administer oxygen to each patient.Question: There has been a great deal written lately about the use of the long spine board (LSB) and its use in prehospital care. Many jurisdictions have eliminated or curtailed the use of the LSB due to the lack of clinical evidence supporting its benefit and the growing evidence that it actually increases morbidity and mortality in many types of patients. When is MAC going to examine this issue and hopefully revise the Standards to reflect the current knowledge base?
Question: I have been talking with my paramedic colleagues and I am wondering about the role of CPAP and aspiration. My understanding of the Medical Directive is that CPAP is not indicated for pneumonia or aspiration but rather severe SOB from either COPD or pulmonary edema. Can you please clarify the role of CPAP for respiratory distress patients with either pneumonia or aspiration as the underlying precipitating factor for their SOB?
Question: When managing a cardiac arrest as a PCP and following the Medical Cardiac Arrest Medical Directive, if the patient does not qualify for a TOR (shock delivered, ROSC obtained at some point etc.), why is it required to patch to the BHP (Mandatory Provincial Patch Point) for authorization to transport when it is clear that transport is the only option?
Question: My question relates to analgesia that I can provide patients as an ACP. If I have a patient that meets the indications and conditions for Morphine or Fentanyl under the ACP Core Pain Medical Directive, and if the patients discomfort is improving with the administration of the above narcotic analgesic, is it a requirement that I must proceed to administer Ketorolac?
Question: My question falls under the category of Trauma Cardiac Arrests. Are we expected to check the pulse of a PEA patient, secondary to trauma, every two minutes? I believe we do as this follows heart and stroke and also verifies a PEA is in fact pulseless. The BLS states to reassess pulse every 2 minutes under medical section 2-18, but trauma section 3-6, referring to trauma VSA, states to follow ALS patient care standards and protocols. Our protocol does not state or outline the desired pulse assessment treatment during transport after the one analysis is performed. Thank you in advance.
Question: Your partner is preparing O2, obtaining vitals and attaching the monitor for a chest pain patient. You are performing a primary survey, gathering your SAMPLE Hx, ruling the patient in protocol for ASA, giving the ASA and doing the same for Nitro. Vitals are obtained 3-4 minutes earlier than the Nitro administration. From past experience and following the protocol which states vitals q5 min, nitro q5 min and vitals must be obtained within 5 minutes of medication delivery, is this improper as 3 minutes has lapsed prior to the nitro administration? I have been informed that past deactivation has resulted from this?
Question: There was a question posted in January 2012 that asked if CO poisoning leading from VSA would be considered an unusual circumstance and whether performing one analysis and transporting would be acceptable. Medical Councils answer was that this would be analogous to an asphyxial cardiac arrest such as a drowning and hanging. In these cases, the SWORBHP Medical Directors have preferred that the Medical Cardiac Arrest Medical Directive be followed. This question was asked a long time ago, however, during one of my Base Hospital training sessions, I was told by an Educator that CO (it specifically said) does fall under an “unusual circumstance” and therefore you would transport after the first analysis leading to a NO SHOCK ADVISED. Can you clarify what should be done?
Question: A question arose today after a call where a patient clearly did not meet the protocol for Ketorolac. Upon reviewing the contraindications for this protocol, what exactly are being considered to be NSAIDs? The MEDList on the website included Ibuprofen, Naproxen, Celebrex, etc. but what about ASA? Tylenol? Excedrin? I was under the impression that both ASA and Tylenol were considered NSAIDs? My partner and I could not come to a conclusion and wanted further clarification.
Question: This question is based around a call that has had some interesting discussion and I am curious to get your input on. The call was initially for an allergic reaction, updated while en route to say that the patient was seizing. Upon arrival, you find a 28 year old male lying on the ground. A family member states that the patient was stung by a wasp on the back of the neck approximately 15 minutes ago. They immediately gave him Benadryl orally and he self-administered his EpiPen (the family seems reliable and as far as you can ascertain both of these medications were administered appropriately and were not expired). They continue on to tell you that about five minutes ago, the patient had a seizure that just ended as you arrived. The patient has never had a seizure before. There was no trauma suffered from the seizure. The patient has a history of anaphylaxis to wasp stings but no other past medical history. On examination, there are no signs of trauma and the patient denies any pain. The patient is conscious, but agitated and confused to place and time (GCS 14). He has slight swelling of the lip but no urticaria anywhere on his body and no other facial swelling. His breath sounds are clear on auscultation. He appears to have been incontinent of urine. There has been no vomiting or diarrhea. Initial vitals are a heart rate of 102 regular and full, respirations 24 regular and full, pupils PEARL 4mm. Blood sugar is 6.7 mmol/L. BP is unobtainable as the patient continues to become more agitated and will not remain still. Oxygen saturation is also unobtainable as the probe keeps coming off his finger while he moves around. Specific points that came up in our discussion that we would love to hear your thoughts on are: 1. Based on the information available here, should this patient receive epinephrine (epi)? It is easy for us to second guess the inability to obtain a blood pressure (BP) on this patient, but for the purposes of discussion, I think we should accept that none of us were on the call and it was not possible for this medic to obtain a BP even by palp. 2. Are we held strictly to the traditional “two systems involvement” view of the diagnosis of anaphylaxis or are we permitted to consider a broader definition such as that published by Sampson et al. in the summary report of the Symposium on the Definition and Management of Anaphylaxis?
Question: My question is in regards to pneumonia and continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP). Bacterial infections are a common trigger for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbations. If we have a patient who has possibly developed a pneumonia (isolated crackles mid lobe in one lung, low grade fever, purulent sputum) but is in respiratory distress with a history of COPD and is showing signs of a COPD exacerbation (decreased breath sounds in bases, showing signs of hypoxia, accessory muscle use, tachypnea, mild diffuse exp wheezes), are we not to treat with CPAP and just use bronchodilators and high flow O2? Thank you!
Question: I have a question regarding congestive heart failure (CHF) and ASA. If a patient is having acute CHF and is coughing up blood but is also having chest pain are they still a candidate to receive ASA given the active “bleeding”. I would think the blood from back up into your lungs is different than the blood from an ulcer or something. Thanks for your help.
Question: I’m a PCP with autonomous IV. It states that a contraindication for a fluid bolus is “signs of fluid overload”. I realize the obvious one is pulmonary edema as that is the example that is always brought up in this scenario. What about a pt that has a clear chest with no fluid accumulation in the lungs, but has peripheral edema in the legs or abdomen? I’ve also had pt’s with hypotension that are on dialysis and have stated that they cannot receive large amounts of fluid due to kidney failure. Do we just document their condition? I’ve heard different answers from everyone and would appreciate some clarification.
Question: There was a question posted on Sep 23, 2014 in regards to a fluid bolus on a transfer between facilities. As I agree that there should have been an RN escort for this patient, the paramedic was certified in IV fluid therapy including boluses. Your answer has me perplexed however. If a physician gave the paramedic a fluid bolus order how would that differ from getting a similar order from a BHP through phone patch. It is in the scope of practice for the paramedic to administer NaCl 0.9% as a bolus, the volume was prescribed by the physician(s) in charge of this patient’s care. Would any paramedic be wrong in following the order given by the physician?
Question: I have been to a few calls where the patient does not have a DNR, but the death is expected and family does not want CPR or other interventions. The family will make statements like “we don’t want CPR” or they wouldn’t want CPR”, etc. Do we initiate the CPR and Defibrillation protocols until we can get hold of the BHP or do we run the call and transport regardless of family request?
Question: I recently had a patient with ischemic like she’s pain (no ECG changes). When going through questions to administer ASA, the patient stated she could not have ASA as per her physician because she was recently placed on Clopidogrel after a stroke about 3 weeks ago. I ask the patient if she meant she should not have daily aspirin, or if a one-time aspirin was okay. She could not answer the question, and stated she did not want to be treated with the aspirin. Is the patient correct, or should I have pushed harder to administer it?
Question: Last night I had a 75 year old patient calling because he was SOB x 2 days with it worsening this evening. Patient could not sleep (could not breathe very well laying down) and was more SOB on exertion. I could hear fine crackles in the bases of his lungs. There was no ischemic chest pain or NTG history. His vitals on contact were HR 90, BP 188/70 (ish), SPO2 95% on Room air, 100% on NRB, RR 24 verified with an with ETCO2 of 40mmHg, No ST changes in 12 lead. He had some slight increased work of breathing on scene with mild increased diaphragmatic use but was speaking full sentences and in good spirits with us. Patient had a history of COPD and CHF. He also stated he had taken some of his Ventolin puffers prior to our arrival with no relief (probably made things worse). I wanted to treat him with NTG but he did not seem to be in enough distress initially, so I kept him on the NRB which he stated help initially. We got to the truck and started an IV enroute, then administered 0.8mg NTG. Literally… within about 2 minutes of the NTG admin, while I was patching, the patient had a sudden onset of severe SOB. We were right outside the hospital, so I grabbed my BVM, assisted his respirations distress until my partner could get us out of the truck and help me put CPAP on. CPAP helped and he was back to normal shortly after our transfer of care. My question is, should I have used the CPAP right away with the NTG, even though the patient was not showing signs of severe respiratory distress at the time, and on numerous auscultations of the lung, did not have any increase in crackles… until of course, he developed that sudden severe respiratory distress? My gut was to CPAP him early, but I felt he did not fit the protocol yet given his level of dyspnea, SPO2 sats, RR and minimal accessory muscle use.
Question: This question is in regards to timing during a medical VSA. Would your 2 minutes in between analysis restart when you stop to analyse or after you have analysed or shocked? For example, you stop to analyse at 1500:00 and you start your CPR at 1500:10 after shock or no shock, would your next analyze be at 1502:00 or 1502:10?